2 Timothy 3:15

and that from a babe thou hast known the sacred writings which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.

From a babe ... This is hyperbolic, and, as White said, "Timothy could not recall a period when he had not known the sacred writings. This is the force of the hyperbole."[24]

The sacred writings ... In the next verse, Paul used the word "Scripture." Why the distinction?

Paul did this for the simple reason that he wishes to draw a distinction between the Old Testament (2 Timothy 3:15) and WHATEVER has a right to be called divinely inspired Scripture (2 Timothy 3:16). The latter comprises more than the former.[25]

The earnest conviction of this writer supports Hendriksen's comment on this, and no objections to it have any weight against it. Scholars agree that this verse applies to the Old Testament, but the error comes when some of them also refer 2 Timothy 3:16 to the Old Testament, on the premise that the New Testament at the time of Paul's writing had not been written. Nevertheless, a great deal of the New Testament had indeed already been written. In fact every book of the New Testament preceding 2Timothy, of which there are no less than fifteen, had already been in circulation for a period of time covering up to three decades! Indeed some of the New Testament was to come subsequently to the publication of 2Timothy, but as regards the central message of the New Testament, it had already been published for decades; besides that, Paul left room here for whatever writings in the future might qualify as Scripture. Also, the notion that Paul did not consider his own writings as Scripture is also false. Time and again in his epistles, he used the ancient formula of the prophets of God, "thus saith the Lord," or "He saith," as in Ephesians 4:8; 5:14; 1 Thessalonians 4:15, etc. Therefore, 2 Timothy 3:15 refers to the Old Testament, and 2 Timothy 3:16 refers to the New Testament, in addition to and inclusive of the Old Testament, thus, to both the Old Testament and the New Testament.

Zerr accepted this understanding of the passage, thus, "2 Timothy 3:16 means both the Old and New Testament as to their divine source."[26] As Ward said, "(2 Timothy 3:16) can be interpreted as covering the New Testament as well as the Old."[27]

Able to make wise unto salvation ... The Old Testament was able to do this, because therein were contained the prophecies which pointed out and identified the Messiah when he came into the world. Only in this sense could the Old Testament make one wise unto salvation, as Paul immediately added in the qualifying clause, "Through faith which is in Christ Jesus."

Through faith which is in Christ Jesus ... This clause is interesting in that it defines the arena where the faith that saves is operative, giving a concise definition of what "faith in Christ" actually means. It has no reference to the subjective trust/faith of believers, but means faithful adherence to the teachings of Christ, true fidelity, exercised by one who is in Christ. Thus, people who have not accepted the gospel by being baptized "into Christ" may indeed have faith "out of Christ" (that being where they are), but not "faith in Christ," no matter what professions of faith may be enunciated.

[24] Newport J. D. White, op. cit., p. 174.

[25] William Hendriksen, op. cit., p. 300.

[26] E. M. Zerr, op. cit., p. 197.

[27] Ronald A. Ward, op. cit., p. 200.