Exodus 6:2-3

"And God spake unto Moses, and said unto him, I am Jehovah: and I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, As God Almighty; but by my name Jehovah I was not known to them."

This passage must be hailed as one of the most difficult in the Bible, the difficulty being in the statement that, "as Jehovah" (Yahweh), God was unknown to the patriarchs. Whereas, it is a fact that the patriarchs most assuredly DID know God by that name! We may be certain that this apparent contradiction is due to some kind of human error. It is simply inconceivable that Moses, the author of Exodus, could have stated what is recorded here, unless some meaning beyond what seems to be said is intended.

First, let it be understood that the patriarchs DID know God by the name Jehovah. When Abraham offered Isaac and God provided a ram as the sacrifice, Abraham called the name of the place Jehovah-jireh (Genesis 22:14). Moses' own mother was named Jochebed (Exodus 6:20), which means "Jehovah is glory!"[9] Abraham knew Jehovah in the land of Ur, for God told him, "I am Jehovah that brought thee out of Ur" (Genesis 15:7), and Abraham used "Jehovah" in addressing God: "Oh Lord Jehovah, whereby shall I know that I shall inherit ..." (Genesis 15:8). The mother of all living in the gates of Paradise itself said, regarding the birth of Cain, "I have gotten a man with the help of Jehovah" (Genesis 4:1). It was under the name Jehovah that God visited Abraham (Genesis 18:13,17). Under the name Jehovah, he appeared to Isaac (Genesis 26:2); and Jacob explained his early return to Isaac on the occasion of the blessing by saying, "Jehovah thy God (Isaac's God) sent me good speed" (Genesis 27:20). Noah invoked the name of Jehovah in the blessing of Shem (Genesis 9:26). Examples could be multiplied, but these are sufficient to show that the patriarchs did indeed know the name Jehovah.

Now, it is in the light of that background that the rendition here of Exodus 6:3, making it say, "By my name Jehovah, I was NOT known to them!" that the difficulty appears. The unbelieving critics assert that different authors were writing in the various parts of the Pentateuch, and that they contradicted each other. Hence, the Bible is not God's Word as Jesus Christ himself declared it to be! A falsehood of such dimensions no believer in Christ can allow for a single moment. That is NOT the explanation of this difficulty. What is the explanation? The following solutions to the problem have been proposed:

1. The words here rendered, "I was not known unto them," are a mistranslation. The principal Hebrew word in the clause means, "I-made-myself-known."[10] There is also a negative, but it occurs afterward, and the placement of it is optional. Tyndale rendered it thus: "Was I not known unto them?" (Punctuation mine). Remember that punctuation of Biblical texts is purely a human, and therefore, a very fallible thing. We have chosen the Tyndale rendition because it more exactly conforms to the order of the Hebrew words, and if we punctuate it properly, we have this:

   "BY MY NAME JEHOVAH WAS I NOT MADE KNOWN UNTO THEM?"

   In defense of this punctuation, we may say that it is certainly as "inspired" as that of any of the critics who would like to punctuate it in order to make a contradiction here of other Biblical texts. This exegesis is supported by scholarly opinion of the very highest rank. "The words should be read interrogatively, for the negative particle (not) often has this power in Hebrew."[11] Clark's rendition of the whole sentence is: "And by my name Jehovah was I not also made known unto them?"[12] Regarding the conjunction here (but in the ASV and and in Clark's rendition), it is not in the Hebrew at all either way and is merely supplied by the translator. Robert Jamieson also gave as the preferred rendition here: "By my name Jehovah was I not known to them?"[13] Other discerning scholars of recent times could be cited in this connection, but we have chosen Clark and Jamieson because their works rank as high as any other, have already been received and in use for a century or a century and a half, and are still being printed. We consider their testimony on this point irrefutable. In this connection, it should also be noted that the Cross-Reference Bible of 1910 also gave the proper rendition of the key words here (except for the question mark): "Did I not make myself known?"[14]

   Therefore, this is our preferred exegesis of the passage, making it a categorical denial and refutation of the critical nonsense that makes this a contradiction of thirty passages in the rest of the Pentateuch. However, even if this obvious meaning of the place is ignored, there are other explanations that will be noted.

2. J. R. Dummelow believed that, "The appearance of Jehovah in those earlier passages may be due, not to the speakers, but to the writer, to whom it was familiar, and who used it by anticipation."[15] This would mean that Moses, having learned the "new name" put it into the mouths of characters who lived centuries earlier. This device is called prolepsis, and a number have supposed that is what we have here. However, this seems to us impossible of acceptance. Could we suppose, even for a moment, that Moses changed the name of his own mother, putting in the mouth of those who named her a word they never even heard of?. Ridiculous. Prolepsis is not at all indicated here.

3. Another explanation is this: Fields suggested that "knowing God" means "knowing what the name implies."[16] Supporting this view is the fact that, long centuries after the name Jehovah was well known, God said, "I will cause them to know that my name is Jehovah (Jeremiah 16:21)."[17] Thus, knowing God, as indicated by the Scriptures themselves, certainly means more than merely knowing how to pronounce God's name. In fairness, it must be said that this appears to be the preferred explanation adopted by scholars generally. Note:

   "The name was not unknown to the patriarchs ... the full significance of it was now to be revealed? The text plainly relates to a commentary God is about to give on this name (an old name) in deeds? What is indicated is not that the name Jehovah (Yahweh) was previously unknown but that the meaning was about to be revealed? In other words, the full import of that name was not disclosed to the patriarchs.[21] God is not revealing an unknown name, but using a known name to give emphasis to a promise? God had not revealed himself in his character as Jehovah to Abraham as he was now about to do for Israel? (This is) a further revelation of who God is."[24]

   Thus, even in the light of this type of exegesis, which we nevertheless believe is secondary to that given under (a) above, it is clear enough that all references to "the divine new name"[25] are absolutely in error. No new name is given. "It is absurd to press this passage as proof of the ignorance of the patriarchs of the name Jehovah for God."[26] "The apparent meaning of this passage (as improperly punctuated) cannot therefore be its true meaning."[27]

   We have devoted a little more space to this question than might seem necessary to some, but right here is the keystone of the arch for that fantastic rainbow bridge of lies that current critics have built over the Word of God, because it is important that it should be demonstrated just how weak and unacceptable a pretense that arch is. Read the passage like it should be read:

   "BY MY NAME JEHOVAH WAS I NOT KNOWN UNTO THEM?"

   This is exactly the same kind of interrogative declaration used by Jesus Christ himself when he asked, "IF HE ASK FOR A FISH; WILL HE GIVE HIM A SERPENT?" (Matthew 7:10). The constantly repeated use of the names Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in contexts where this name is mentioned proves that who the sacred author was referring to here was that same JEHOVAH who was the God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob. Otherwise, there could have been no point at all in mentioning the names of those patriarchs ten times upon those occasions when Moses was using the name.