Matthew 19:7 - Exposition

Why did Moses then command? If, as you assert, God ordained that marriage should be indissoluble, how comes it that Moses commanded ( ἐνετει ì λατο ) us to practise divorce, and prescribed rules as to its conduct? They are referring to Deuteronomy 24:1 , Deuteronomy 24:2 . Jesus had escaped the trap which was laid for him, and foiled them by the very words of Scripture and the plain intention of the first institution. But they see their way to opposing the authority of the great lawgiver to the dictum and interpretation of this new Teacher. It cannot be supposed, they argue, that Moses would enjoin a practice condemned by the Word of God; therefore, if you abide by your exposition, you contradict Moses. A writing of divorcement. The man who desired to divorce his wife could not effect this separation by mere word of mouth or by violent ejectment; he must have a written document formally prepared and witnessed, necessitating certain delay and publicity. In regulating the method of divorce and giving rules which prevented it from being undertaken rashly and lightly, Moses could not justly be said to have commanded it. There were also two cases in which he absolutely forbade divorce (see Deuteronomy 22:13-19 ; Deuteronomy 22:28 , Deuteronomy 22:29 ).