Romans 3:7 - Exposition

For if the truth of God in my lie abounded to his glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner? One view is that this is a continuation or resumption of the question of Romans 3:5 on the part of the Jew, its drift being the same. But the word κἀγὼ , as well as the position of the verse after τῶς κρινεῖ , etc., suggests rather its being intended to express that any one throughout the world, as well as the Jew, might plead against' deserved judgment, if the Jew's supposed plea were valid. Nay, in that case, the apostle goes on to say, he, or any of us, might justify all wrongdoing for a supposed good end. Why not?