Revelation 2:9 - Exposition

I know thy tribulation, and thy poverty . "Thy works" has been inserted here and in Revelation 2:13 in order to make the opening of all seven epistles alike. The uncials A, C, P, and the Vulgate, Coptic, and AE thiopic Versions omit the words in each place. The Sinaiticus inserts them here and omits them in Revelation 2:13 , where they are plainly awkward in construction. Like all wealthy cities, Smyrna showed the extremes of wealth and poverty side by side. It would be among the poor that Christians would in the first instance be found, and their Christianity would lead to their spoliation; in this much of their "tribulation" would consist. But thou art rich (compare the close parallel, 2 Corinthians 6:10 ; 2 Corinthians 8:2 ; Matthew 6:20 ). And the blasphemy from them which say they are Jews, and they are not. We have here strong evidence of the early date of the Apocalypse. Throughout this book "Jew" is an honourable name for the worshippers of the Christ; "Gentiles," a name of reproach for those who oppose the Christ ( Revelation 2:9 ; Revelation 3:9 ; Revelation 11:2 , Revelation 11:18 ; Revelation 12:5 ; Revelation 16:19 ; Revelation 18:3 , Revelation 18:23 ; Revelation 19:15 , etc.). These persecutors of the Church of Smyrna are Jews in name, but in reality are rather Gentiles—opponents, and not worshippers of the Messiah. The view taken in the Fourth Gospel is utterly different. There "the Jews" are almost invariably the opponents of Christ; the word occurs about seventy times, and nearly always with this shade of meaning. Assume that the Gospel was written a quarter of a century later than the Apocalypse, and there is nothing strange in this. Long experience of Jewish malignity in opposing the gospel has changed the apostle's views respecting his countrymen. He has become fully convinced of the inveterate and widespread character of the national apostasy. To him "the Jews" have become synonymous with the enemies of the cross of Christ. Assume that the Apocalypse was written about the same time as the Gospel, and how shall we account for this utter difference of view in the two books? Assume that the Gospel was written long before the Apocalypse, and how shall we explain the fact that experience of Jewish hostility has turned the apostle's abhorrence of "the Jews" into such admiration that to him a Jew has become synonymous with a believer in Jesus Christ? It is remarkable that, in the 'Martyrdom of St. Polycarp,' the Jews are said to have been present in great numbers, and to have been foremost ( μάλιστα ιουδαίους προθύμως ) in collecting wood with which to burn him alive. A synagogue of Satan (comp. Revelation 3:9 ; John 8:44 ). This is in marked contrast to "the synagogue of the Lord" ( Numbers 16:3 ; Numbers 20:4 ; Numbers 31:16 ). With the exception of James 2:2 , συναγωγή is, in the New Testament, always used of Jewish assemblies, never of Christian. This usage soon became habitual in the Church.