In this study, Pastor Ben once again navigates the difficulties of Biblical Interpretation regarding "Predestination" and "Foreknowledge." "Predestination," as it is translated in English, carries certain strong overtones that are not found in Classical Greek. "Foreknowledge", likewise, if strictly "literally" translated, harms the argument that Paul is making. Can "Predestination" actually mean "pre-ordain" and "foreknowledge" actually mean "pre-loved"? How does this change the argument? Does the context support this? And can you prove this from the historical uses of this word?